This theorem is for fun only, but thanks for discussing it in so detail.
and in fact during discussion u gave me other fun theorems as well.
and sacc_Pakistani keep it boy ;) after being so attached with MQM you started to adopt habits of Altaf as well, No matter what is the matter pass comments.
let we assume that
a^2=b^2
means a=b (for argument only)
(-1)^2=(1)^2=1 this means -1=1 or 2=0 (adding one both side)
once 2=0 divide both by 2
gives 1=0
than multiply both side by any number
which will give every number equals zero (rubbish)
all rubbish
I ve seen such rubbish proves on many sites and emails all use some jugglery and comes to foolish results after inadequate use of square root. Please go through basics mathematics and be aware that
a^2=b^2 never ever means a=b
(4-9/2)^2=(5-9/2)^2
(-1/2)^2=(1/2)^2
Reply:
princess dont mind - he is a m
he can proof that dog is cat and can argue whole day on it, he is very sad person, u can imagine.
Reply:
sorry princess, your approach
Replied by(
Noman)
Replied on (21/Nov/2007)
if a^2=b^2 then it is only possible
if a=b
above theorem is for values not for variables.
if both sides has same value, then no need to solve it, we can simple remove it from both sides as
if
2-a=2-b then it can be simplified as
a=b
similarly
(4-9/2)=(5-9/2)
can be written as
4=5
as -9/2 is canceling each other on both sides.
Reply:
wrong
dear there
a^2=b^2
never means a=b
however it means
either
a=b
or
a=-b
i repeat either of two nor both
so here true one is
(4-9/2)=-(5-9/2)
-1/2=-1/2